Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command If both the cost and upstream BID are tied, which BPDU value is used to break this tie? A. Upstream Port ID B. Priority C. Status D. MAC address What is the wildcard mask equivalent of the subnet mask /23? A. 0.0.0.1 B. 0.0.3.255 C. 0.0.1.255 D. 0.0.0.0 E. 0.0.0.3 F. 0.0.7.255 G. 0.0.0.7 You have the network 192.168.5.0/24 that has been subnetted to /30 networks. What is the subnet ID of the seventh subnet that was created? A. 192.168.5.28/30 B. 192.168.5.16/30 C. 192.168.5.12/30 D. 192.168.5.24/30 E. 192.168.5.32/30 F. 192.168.5.20/30 Which issues can be caused by a redundant switch topology? (Choose three) A. MAC address table instability B. Broadcast storms C. Duplicate IP addresses D. Single point of failure E. Multiple frame copies When using the snmpget application, what must be specified in order to manually obtain data? (Choose two) A. The OID number B. The SNMP manager ID C. The IP address of the network device you are querying D. The NMS polling number https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/snmp-v1-v2c-v3-overview-and-configuration.html The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Refer to the diagram. What method of authentication is being used? A. Open authentication B. CCMP C. WEP D. 802.1x Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Which of the following connections require a crossover cable? (Choose three) A. Router to router B. Router to switch C. Switch to PC D. PC to router E. Switch to switch Which application(s) would Jitter and Delay not be a concern for the users experience? A. Online Gaming. B. VoIP. C. Web browsers. D. videoconferencing. Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1 B. Switch3, port fa0/12 C. Switch4, port fa0/11 D. Switch4, port fa0/2 E. Switch3, port Gi0/1 F. Switch3, port Gi0/2 Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B You are creating a number IPv4 extended ACL. What is the valid number range you can use? A. 1100-1199 B. 100-199 C. 200-299 D. 1-99 E. 700-799 Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 Which statements identify VLAN trunking behavior across IEEE 802.1Q links? (Choose two) A. By default, access ports carrytraffic for one VLAN only B. The layer 2 header must remain static to keep track of VLAN origins C. All VLANs have a tag, except the native VLAN D. The native VLAN should be left alone for security https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three) A. optional IPsec B. autoconfiguration C. no broadcasts D. complicated header E. plug-and-play F. checksums https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-8-internet-protocol-version-6/addressing.html Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above What are the considerations when using Cisco PVST+? (Choose two) A. You can manipulate spanning-tree topologies on a VLAN-by-VLAN basis B. There is only one spanning-tree instance for the entire switched network C. It does not allow load sharing or balancing D. It allows optimal load sharing You have a network address of 172.16.0.0/22, which equals a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Determine the block size of this subnet. A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 16 E. 4 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Of the figures shown, which depicts an accurate Clos Architecture? A. Topology A B. Topology B C. Topology C D. Topology D Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms How does creating an access list differ in IPv6 from IPv4? (Choose two) A. Prefix length can be used B. It is automatically applied to an interface C. Operator ports can be used D. Wildcard masks are not used An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. Which of the following is valid for Single-area OSPF design type? (Choose two) A. Using summarization results in smaller routing tables B. A better solution for efficient routing C. Every router is required to process many link-state advertisements (LSAs) D. Larger routing tables are required https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-planning.html __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are participating in the RIPv2 routing process? A. show ip rip B. show ip protocols C. show ip route D. show rip interfaces E. show ip interface brief What occurs on a router when you issue the command “ipv6 enable“ in interface configuration mode? A. Nothing will happen until you issue the ipv6 unicast-routing command as well B. The interface will automatically create a link-local address using EUI-64 for the interface portion C. The interface will be enabled for DHCPv6 D. The interface will automatically create a link-local address using a random generator for the interface portion Identify the guidelines to follow when configuring ACLs. (Choose three) A. If applied correctly, an ACL can filter traffic going through the router B. Place a Standard ACL close to the destination C. The last ACL test is always an implicit deny everything else statement D. Multiple ACLs can be applied to an interface direction E. The most general statement should be at the top of an ACL https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4 What option(s) are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Rapid elasticity B. Agile network access C. Measured service D. Proactive service Identify the command used to show the status of a specific interface. A. show interfaces description B. show interfaces type module/slot/port C. show interfaces hardware D. show interfaces load https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/network-environment-management/neighbors-on-the-network.html You are configuring HSRP for VLAN 10. You want its primary default gateway to be R1 and secondary default gateway be R2. What should you consider when configuring HSRP for R1? (Choose two) A. Ensure that you use the same group number for all your configuration commands B. Ensure that pre-emption is disabled C. To ensure R1 always has priority, use the IP address of the physical interface of R1 for the virtual IP address D. Ensure that you specify R2 has a lower priority than R1 Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two) A. discarding B. listening C. learning D. forwarding E. disabled https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values? A. EF B. AF C. CS D. PF What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Which microcode is used to test the basic functionality of router hardware and determine which components are present? A. bootstrap B. ROM monitor C. ROM D. POST E. RAM F. NVRAM Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands uses ICMP messages to determine whether a host is active? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Which cloud service model gives a customer complete control over the virtual hardware components, including processor performance, network connectivity, how much memory and storage space is required, and potentially the operating system that is preinstalled? A. SaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. TaaS You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to identify the private IP addresses that can be translated? A. access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63 B. ip nat outside C. ip nat pool NAT_POOL 203.0.113.3 203.0.113.6 prefix-length 29 D. ip nat inside E. ip nat inside source list 1 interface fastethernet0/0 overload Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three) A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information. B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains. C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information. D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Wireless controller C. Lightweight AP D. Wireless router What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands You want to view the OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis. Which of the following commands can accomplish this? A. show ospf neighbors B. show ip ospf neighbor C. show ip interface D. show ospf summary https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/single-area-ospf.html What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology? A. path cost B. lowest port MAC address C. VTP revision number D. highest port priority number E. port priority number and MAC address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/spanning-tree-operations.html Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. ::1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 Which statements describe a trunk operation? (Choose two) A. It carries traffic for a single virtual LAN, or VLAN B. It's the link between an Ethernet switch interface and a router C. Cisco supports the 802.1 Q trunking protocol D. It excludes traffic from the native VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 You have a Class C address with a subnet mask of /28. How many bits were borrowed from the host portion of the address? A. Six B. One C. Four D. Two E. Three F. Five

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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